2013年8月31日星期六

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Code d'Examen: QAW1301
Nom d'Examen: Business-Objects (Business Objects Certified Professional Business Objects Web)
Questions et réponses: 58 Q&As

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NO.1 You are using calculation contexts within an If() function. Which two are valid contexts for use
in
an If() function? (Choose two.)
A. In Cell
B. In Row
C. In Block
D. In Report
Answer: C, D

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NO.2 You open a Web Intelligence document (WID) with data and want to use data tracking. The
Data
Tracking button is however grayed out. Which action should you take to enable formatting of the
tracked data?
A. Contact the system administrator.
B. Edit the document in tracking mode.
C. Open the document in tracking mode.
D. Enable data tracking in the Document Properties.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which DaysBetween() function syntax should you use to calculate the number of years since
your
birth, assuming the date object is Birth_date?
A. =DaysBetween([Birth_date] ; CurrentDate ) / 365.25
B. =DaysBetween([Birth_date] , CurrentDate() ) / 365.25
C. =DaysBetween([Birth_date] ; CurrentDate() ) / 365.25
D. =DaysBetween(CurrentDate() ; [Birth_date] ) / 365.25
Answer: C

Business-Objects   QAW1301   QAW1301

NO.4 Which two statements are true of grouping sets when using smart measures? (Choose two.)
A. It is a set of dimensions that generates a result for a measure.
B. It is a set of measures that generates a result for a dimension.
C. The generated SQL includes grouping sets for all the aggregations of that dimension that are
included in the report.
D. The generated SQL includes grouping sets for all the aggregations of that measure that are
included in the report.
Answer: A, D

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NO.5 You want to compare the sales revenue performance of the top 20% of your customers to the
average of all of your customers. You decide to apply a rank on the table that shows customers
and revenue and create a variable to show the average revenue for all customers. Which function
should you use in the variable?
A. NoFilter()
B. NoRank()
C. AverageAll()
D. IgnoreFilter()
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 050-V40-ENVCSE02
Nom d'Examen: RSA (RSA enVision Certified Systems Engineer 4.0 Exam)
Questions et réponses: 70 Q&As

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NO.1 In RSA enVision architecture, what best defines an enVision "Domain"?
A. One or more Sites working together.
B. The set of servers that make up a Master site.
C. The set of Collectors (local and remote) within one Windows domain.
D. All network information events collected from a single Windows domain.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the log data collection methods listed below do NOT require the configuration of a service
before RSA enVision can recognize a device using that collection method? (Choose two)
A. Syslog
B. ODBC
C. SNMP
D. Log file FTP
E. Checkpoint LEA API
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 Which of the following statements about the RSA enVision ES Series appliance is NOT true?
A. The ES Series supports options for external data storage.
B. The ES Series is designed to operate in a stand-alone non-distributed mode.
C. The ES Series contains all three RSA enVision functional components in a single appliance.
D. The ES Series consists of three appliances each providing collection, data management, and analysis.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Assuming that a <device>msg.xml file exists for a device and a collected log message has a match in
the <device>msg.xml, which of the following statements are true? (Choose two)
A. The device is a supported device.
B. The LEA client service must be installed.
C. The ODBC standard database access method is being used.
D. The message can be parsed to the appropriate enVision database table.
E. The device is probably producing logs in the Unix syslog or SNMP format.
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 The RSA enVision Event Viewer displays information from what source?
A. Packager "nuggets".
B. NIC Reader Service database.
C. Report RDB relational database.
D. Internet Protocol Database (IPDB).
Answer: D

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NO.6 The exhibit shows block diagrams describing an enVision LS Site with a Database Server (D-SRV),
Application Server (A-SRV), and two Local Collector (LC1 and LC2) components. Which diagram shows
the correct arrangement?
A. Diagram A
B. Diagram
B C. Diagram C
D. Diagram D
Answer: B

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NO.7 In general, RSA enVision's security information and event management functions include which of the
following? (Choose two)
A. Storage of log data.
B. Collection of log data.
C. Distribution of log data.
D. Filtering of regulatory log data.
E. Selective rule-based log deletion.
Answer: A,B

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NO.8 Which of the following describes the timestamp that is shown in the Event Viewer Date/Time field?
A. The timestamp is from the source device for that event.
B. The timestamp is from the enVision collector that is prepended to the event.
C. The timestamp indicates the time the event was first viewed in Event Viewer.
D. The timestamp indicates the elapsed time between event origination and capture.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Within the RSA enVision console, what should you reference to determine if enVision's standard reports
pertain to the Sarbanes-Oxley (SOX) or the BASEL II standards?
A. The VAM assessment control panel under the 'Compliance >> Standards' tab.
B. The enVision administrative interface which, by default, includes both SOX and BASEL II reports.
C. The Best Practices tool section of the 'Overview' tab which provides an overview with links to...
D. The Compliance Report Filter (CRF) which can be downloaded from the RSA enVision Support...
Answer: C

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NO.10 What is the primary difference between the LC5 and LC10 local collector units?
A. Base storage capacity.
B. Events Per Second (EPS) capability.
C. Physical size and weight of the units.
D. Type of Database Server to which they may be attached.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: ML0-220
Nom d'Examen: Mile2 (Certified Network Security Administrator..)
Questions et réponses: 116 Q&As

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NO.1 What are the challenges associated with VPN implementation?
A. Complexity of infrastructure
B. Addressing and routing and administration
C. Difficulty with centralized management of client policy
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following is true about authentication?
A. Authentication means that information can be accessed when needed by authorized
personnel
B. Authentication means that passwords can be accessed when needed by authorized
personnel
C. Authentication means the positive verification of the user/device ma system
D. Authentication means that only authorized persons modify information
Answer: C

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NO.3 Your company's off site backup facility is intended to operate an information
processing facility, having no computer or
communications equipment, but having flooring, electrical wiring, air conditioning,
etc. This is better known as a____
A. Hot site
B. Duplicate processing facility
C. Cold site
D. Warm site
Answer: C

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NO.4 The Musical Instrument Digital Interface (MIDI) standard is used for digital music.
Which OSI layer does this standard belong to?
A. Session
B. Data Link
C. Application
D. Presentation
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which out of the following is/are preventive measures against password sniffing?
A. Passwords must not be sent through email in plain text
B. Passwords must not be stored in plain text on any electronic media
C. Passwords may be electronically stored if encrypted
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.6 Zip/Jaz drives, SyQuest, and Bemoulli boxes are very transportable and are often
the standard for:
A. Data exchange in many businesses
B. Data change in many businesses
C. Data compression in many businesses
D. Data interchange in many businesses
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following is TRUE then transmitting Secret Information over the
network?
A. Secret Information should be transmitted in an encrypted form
B. Secret Information should be transmitted as a plain-text
C. Secret Information should be transmitted in a compressed form
D. Secret Information should be transmitted along with user id
Answer: A

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NO.8 The _____ application provides IP address-to-hostname or vice-versa lookup:
A. FTP
B. Telnet
C. DNS
D. ICMP
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following is NOT a good practice for audit logs?
A. Audit Logs should be accessible to all users at all times
B. Audit Logs should be accessible to security personnel only
C. Audit Logs should contain unsuccessful login attempts
D. Audit Logs should not contain any passwords
Answer: A

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NO.10 Firewalls at this level know a great deal about what is going on and can be very
selective in granting access:
A. Layer 3
B. Layer 4
C. Layer 6
D. Layer 7
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which of the following rules related to a Business Continuity Plan/Disaster
Recovery Plan is not correct?
A. In order to facilitate recovery, a single plan should coverall locations
B. There should be requirements for forming a committee to decide a course of action.
These decisions should be made ahead of time
and incorporated into the plan
C. In its procedures and tasks, the plan should refer to functions, not specific individuals
D. Critical vendors should be contacted ahead of time to validate equipment that can be
obtained in a timely manner
Answer: A

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NO.12 An alternate site configured with necessary system hardware, supporting
infrastructure and an on site staff able to respond to an
activation of a contingency plan 24 hours a day,7 days a week is a
A. Hot site
B. Cold site
C. Warm site
D. None of the above
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which of the following c1assify under techno crime?
A. Stolen customer account details
B. Virus attack
C. Server failure
D. Hurricane
Answer: A

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NO.14 Can a user use Personal Certificates to control server access?
A. SSL can also be used to verify the users' identity to the server
B. NO, there is no such method
C. It can be used through web security
D. None of the above
Answer: A

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NO.15 The most common method of social engineering is:
A. Looking through users' trash for information
B. Calling users and asking for information
C. E-mailing users and asking for information
D. E-mail
Answer: B

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15.The full form of IDS is ____________
A. Intrusion Detection System
B. Intrusion Deactivation System
C. Information Distribution System
D. Intrusion Detection Software
Answer: A

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17.What is an Intranet?
A. A private network using World Wide Web technology
B. A private network using digital telephony services
C. A public network using World Wide Web technology
D. A public network using digital telephony services
Answer: A

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18.Which of the following is the best description of" separation of duties"?
A. Assigning different parts of tasks to different employees
B. Employees are canted only the privileges necessary to perform their tasks
C. Each employee is granted specific information that is required to carry out the job
function
D. Screening employees before assigning them to a position
Answer: A

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19.Who is the main person responsible for installation and maintenance of the
computer systems?
A. Chief Executive Officer
B. System Supplier
C. System Designer
D. Business Process Owner
Answer: B

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20.You have a network address of 196.202.56.0 with four subnets. You wont to allow
for maximum number of Hosts. What is the
subnet mask you need to apply?
A. 255.255.255.224
B. 255.255.224.0
C. 255.255.255.128
D. 255.255.255.192
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: CGEIT
Nom d'Examen: ISACA (ISACA CGEIT Certification Practice Test)
Questions et réponses: 279 Q&As

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NO.1 Mark is the project manager of the BFL project for his organization. He and the project team are
creating a probability and impact matrix using RAG rating. There is some confusion and disagreement
among the project team as to how a certain risk is important and priority for attention should be managed.
Where can Mark determine the priority of a risk given its probability and impact?
A. Risk response plan
B. Look-up table
C. Project sponsor
D. Risk management plan
Answer: B

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NO.2 What are the various phases of the Software Assurance Acquisition process according to the U.S.
Department of Defense (DoD) and Department of Homeland Security (DHS) Acquisition and Outsourcing
Working Group?
A. Implementing, contracting, auditing, monitoring
B. Requirements, planning, monitoring, auditing
C. Designing, implementing, contracting, monitoring
D. Planning, contracting, monitoring and acceptance, follow-on
Answer: D

ISACA   CGEIT   CGEIT

NO.3 DRAG DROP
Val IT is a suite of documents that provide a framework for the governance of IT investments, produced by
the IT Governance Institute (ITGI). It is a formal statement of principles and processes for IT portfolio
management. Drag and drop the correct domain ('Portfolio management') next to the IT processes
defined by Val IT.
Answer:

NO.4 Jenny is the project manager for the NBT projects. She is working with the project team and several
subject matter experts to perform the quantitative risk analysis process.
During this process she and the project team uncover several risks events that were not previously
identified. What should Jenny do with these risk events?
A. The events should be determined if they need to be accepted or responded to.
B. The events should be entered into the risk register.
C. The events should continue on with quantitative risk analysis.
D. The events should be entered into qualitative risk analysis.
Answer: B

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NO.5 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with an appropriate word.
________is also referred to as corporate governance, and covers issues such as board structures, roles
and executive remuneration.
Answer: Conformance

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NO.6 Which of the following is the process of comparing the business processes and performance metrics
including cost, cycle time, productivity, or quality?
A. Agreement
B. COBIT
C. Service Improvement Plan
D. Benchmarking
Answer: D

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NO.7 Benchmarking is a continuous process that can be time consuming to do correctly.
Which of the following guidelines for performing benchmarking identifies the critical processes and
creates measurement techniques to grade the process?
A. Research
B. Adapt
C. Plan
D. Improve
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following processes is responsible for low risk, frequently occurring low cost changes?
A. Incident Management
B. IT Facilities Management
C. Release Management
D. Request Fulfillment
Answer: D

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NO.9 An organization supports both programs and projects for various industries. What is a portfolio?
A. A portfolio describes all of the monies that are invested in the organization.
B. A portfolio is the total amount of funds that have been invested in programs, projects, and operations.
C. A portfolio describes any project or program within one industry or application area.
D. A portfolio describes the organization of related projects, programs, and operations.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following are the roles of a CEO in the Resource management framework?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Organizing and facilitating IT strategic implementations
B. Establishment of business priorities & allocation of resources for IT performance
C. Overseeing the aggregate IT funding
D. Capitalization on knowledge & information
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.11 You are the project manager of the NHQ project for your company. You are working with your project
team to complete a risk audit. A recent issue that your project team responded to, and management
approved, was to increase the project schedule because there was risk surrounding the installation time
of a new material. Your logic was that with the expanded schedule there would be time to complete the
installation without affecting downstream project activities. What type of risk response is being audited in
this scenario?
A. Avoidance
B. Mitigation
C. Parkinson's Law
D. Lag Time
Answer: A

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NO.12 You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. You are working on a project and the
management wants a rapid and cost-effective means for establishing priorities for planning risk responses
in your project. Which risk management process can satisfy management's objective for your project?
A. Quantitative analysis
B. Qualitative risk analysis
C. Historical information
D. Rolling wave planning
Answer: B

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NO.13 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase.
_________is the study of how the variation (uncertainty) in the output of a mathematical model can be
apportioned, qualitatively or quantitatively, to different sources of variation in the input of a model
Answer: Sensitivity analysis

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NO.14 Which of the following is a process that occurs due to mergers, outsourcing or changing business
needs?
A. Voluntary exit
B. Plant closing
C. Involuntary exit
D. Outplacement
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which of the following essential elements of IT Portfolio Investment Management drives better
decisions by providing real-time portfolio performance information in personalized views, such as
cost/benefit summary, risk versus reward, ROI versus alignment, and balance bubble charts?
A. Workflow, Process Management, Tracking and Authorization
B. Portfolio Management
C. Integrated Dashboards and Scorecards
D. Portfolio What-If Planning
Answer: C

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NO.16 Mary is the business analyst for your organization. She asks you what the purpose of the assess
capability gaps task is. Which of the following is the best response to give Mary?
A. It identifies the causal factors that are contributing to an effect the solution will solve.
B. It identifies new capabilities required by the organization to meet the business need.
C. It describes the ends that the organization wants to improve.
D. It identifies the skill gaps in the existing resources.
Answer: B

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NO.17 You are the project manager for your organization. You are preparing for the quantitative risk analysis.
Mark, a project team member, wants to know why you need to do quantitative risk analysis when you just
completed qualitative risk analysis. Which one of the following statements best defines what quantitative
risk analysis is.?
A. Quantitative risk analysis is the process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing
and combining their probability of occurrence and impact.
B. Quantitative risk analysis is the planning and quantification of risk responses based on
probability and impact of each risk event.
C. Quantitative risk analysis is the review of the risk events with the high probability and the highest
impact on the project objectives.
D. Quantitative risk analysis is the process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall
project objectives.
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which of the following processes is described in the statement below?
"This is the process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project
objectives."
A. Identify Risks
B. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
D. Monitor and Control Risks
Answer: C

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NO.19 You are a management consultant. WebTech Inc., an e-commerce organization, hires you to analyze
its SWOT. Which of the following factors will you not consider for the SWOT analysis?
A. Bandwidth
B. Pricing
C. Product
D. Promotion
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which of the following is NOT a sub-process of Service Portfolio Management?
A. Service Portfolio Update
B. Business Planning Data
C. Strategic Planning
D. Strategic Service Assessment
E. Service Strategy Definition
Answer: B

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NO.21 Your project spans the entire organization. You would like to assess the risk of the project but are
worried that some of the managers involved in the project could affect the outcome of any risk
identification meeting. Your worry is based on the fact that some employees would not want to publicly
identify risk events that could make their supervisors look bad. You would like a method that would allow
participants to anonymously identify risk events. What risk identification method could you use?
A. Delphi technique
B. Isolated pilot groups
C. SWOT analysis
D. Root cause analysis
Answer: A

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NO.22 Beth is a project team member on the JHG Project. Beth has added extra features to the project and
this has introduced new risks to the project work. The project manager of the JHG project elects to
remove the features Beth has added. The process of removing the extra features to remove the risks is
called what?
A. Corrective action
B. Preventive action
C. Scope creep
D. Defect repair
Answer: B

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NO.23 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with the appropriate word. An ___________ is a resource, process, product, computing
infrastructure, and so forth that an organization has determined must be protected.
Answer: asset

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NO.24 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase.
_________models address specifications, requirements, design, verification and validation, and
maintenance activities.
Answer: Life cycle

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NO.25 You are the project manager of a large project that will last four years. In this project, you would like to
model the risk based on its distribution, impact, and other factors.
There are three modeling techniques that a project manager can use to include both event-oriented and
project oriented analysis. Which modeling technique does NOT provide event-oriented and project
oriented analysis for identified risks?
A. Modeling and simulation
B. Expected monetary value
C. Sensitivity analysis
D. Jo-Hari Window
Answer: D

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NO.26 You are the project manager for your organization and you are working with Thomas, a project team
member. You and Thomas have been working on a specific risk response for a probable risk event in the
project. Thomas is empowered with a risk response and will control all aspects of the identified risk
response in which a particular risk event will happen within the project. What title, in regard to risk, is
bestowed on Thomas?
A. Risk coordinator
B. Risk expeditor
C. Risk owner
D. Risk team leader
Answer: C

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NO.27 Which of the following elements of planning gap measures the gap between the total potential for the
market and the actual current usage by all the consumers in the market?
A. Project gap
B. Competitive gap
C. Usage gap
D. Product gap
Answer: C

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NO.28 You are the business analyst for your organization and are preparing to conduct stakeholder analysis.
As part of this process you realize that you'll need several inputs.
Which one of the following is NOT an input you'll use for the conduct stakeholder analysis task?
A. Organizational process assets
B. Enterprise architecture
C. Business need
D. Enterprise environmental factors
Answer: D

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NO.29 You work as a project manager for TYU project. You are planning for risk mitigation.
You need to identify the risks that will need a more in-depth analysis. Which of the following activities will
help you in this?
A. Estimate activity duration
B. Quantitative analysis
C. Qualitative analysis
D. Risk identification
Answer: C

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NO.30 Your organization mainly focuses on the production of bicycles for selling it around the world. In
addition to this, the organization also produces scooters. Management wants to restrict its line of
production to bicycles. Therefore, it decides to sell the scooter production department to another
competitor. Which of the following terms best describes the sale of the scooter production department to
your competitor?
A. Corporate restructure
B. Divestiture
C. Rightsizing
D. Outsourcing
Answer: B

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Nom d'Examen: SCP (Enterprise Security Implementation (ESI) )
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NO.1 If your goal is to make your CA issue certificates that have specific key usage, what can you use to
achieve this goal?
A.This can be done by using unique DNs for each key use that you want.
B.This can be done by using OIDs for each key use that you want.
C.This can be done by using unique CNs for each key use that you want.
D.This can only be done by selecting the key use options during the setup of the CA.
E.This can be done by installing the identifier file for each key use.
Answer: B

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NO.2 When using the 3DES encryption ( C = E
?K1
[D
?K2
[E
?K1
[P]]] ) , what is the function of D?
A.D is the text before encryption
B.D is the first encryption key
C.D is the second encryption key
D.D is the decryption key
E.D is the text after encryption
Answer: D

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NO.3 You are in the process of designing your PKI. You are working on the individual systems and servers
that you will need. Which machine that you install is designed simply to enroll new users into the PKI?
A.Certification Authority
B.Archive Server
C.Security Server
D.Registration Authority
E.Certification Repository
Answer: D

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NO.4 If you are going to build a PKI you will need many different components. What is an industry standard
that you can build your PKI upon?
A.Contiguous distinguished name spaces
B.X.509v3 Certificates
C.A defined hierarchy of authorities
D.128-bit SHA1
E.128-bit MD5
Answer: B

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NO.5 Incidents are generally categorized as falling into attacks on the CIA triad. Which of the following three
attacks are the general categories?
A.Attacks against Integrity
B.Attacks against Confidentiality
C.Attacks against Availability
D.Attacks against Accuracy
E.Attacks against Collisions
Answer: ABC

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NO.6 What is a unique benefit to using a File Viewer as one of your Forensics Tools?
A.You do not have to copy data files to your forensic machine for analysis
B.You do not have to worry about modifying the evidence in any manner
C.You are able to view the evidence files in HEX format
D.You do not need to have all the programs installed on your forensic machine to view evidence files
E.You are able to search for specific file types to which the O/S does not have application associations
Answer: D

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NO.7 In PGP, there are two conditions that can be present to provide for the validity of a certificate. What
are these two conditions?
A.The certificate has been digitally signed by your local trusted root Certificate Authority.
B.The certificate is digitally signed by at least one completely trusted key holder, who has a valid
certificate.
C.The certificate is digitally signed by at least two of the marginally trusted key holders, who have valid
certificates.
D.The certificate has been digitally signed by the sender
trusted root Certificate Authority.
E.The certificate is digitally signed by the sender, who is authenticated by your local Certificate Authority.
Answer: BC

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NO.8 What is the name of the option in Windows to hide, or append, a second file to a main file?
A.The Hidden Bit
B.Dynamic Link Libraries
C.NTFS Streams
D.File Associations
E.Hidden Server Management
Answer: C

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NO.9 What format is used to list the information that is contained in the Issuer field of an X.509 digital
certificate?
A.FQDN
B.X.500 CN
C.CA Name
D.X.500 DN
E.Position of the CA in the CA hierarchy
Answer: D

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NO.10 Based on the provided image, what type of certification path will be used in this network?
A.Nested certification path
B.Hierarchical certification path
C.Functional certification path
D.Mesh certification path
E.Bridged certification path
Answer: D

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NO.11 There are many certificate templates built into Windows 2000 Certificate Servers. Which of the
following user templates are valid for client authentication?
A.Smart Card Logon
B.Domain Controller
C.Authenticated Session
D.IPSec (Offline Request)
E.Smart Card User
Answer: ACE

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NO.12 If you wish to make your Windows user account use smart cards, where must you go to check this
option?
A.Active Directory Users and Computers
B.Computer Management, Local Users and Groups
C.Active Directory Sites and Services
D.Active Directory Security Services
E.On the Enterprise Certificate Server
Answer: A

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NO.13 What is the average size of a biometric template?
A.Between 10 and 100 KB
B.Between 100 and 500 KB
C.Less than 1 KB
D.Less than 3 bytes
E.Between 500 KB and 1 MB
Answer: C

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NO.14 When a biometric system performs a one-to-one mapping, what is the systems doing?
A.Identification
B.Authentication
C.Classification
D.Detection
E.Recognition
Answer: B

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NO.15 What transmission system uses multiple frequencies combined together as a band?
A.Digital Channel Hopping (DCH)
B.Lamar Anthell Transmission (LAT)
C.Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum (FHSS)
D.Digital Band Hopping (DBH)
E.Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS)
Answer: E

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NO.16 If you receive an X.509 digital certificate that has a unique identifier, but has no extensions, what
version is the certificate?
A.It is a Version 2 certificate
B.It is a Version 3 certificate
C.It is a Version 1 certificate
D.All X.509 digital certificates have unique identifiers
E.The unique identifier is determined by implementation, not version number
Answer: A

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NO.17 What are the two primary types of token system?
A.Time-based
B.Passive
C.Challenge/Response
D.Active
E.Seeded
Answer: AC

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NO.18 Which of the following can be protected by a patent?
A.A new invention
B.A new product
C.A new process
D.A new name
E.An old product made in a new way
Answer: ABCE

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NO.19 If a Certificate Authority is also designed to accept requests for certificates, then it can be termed as
what?
A.A Root CA
B.An Intermediate CA
C.A CA Hierarchy
D.A Registration Authority
E.A Repository
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which antenna type is best for extending the local range of an Access Point?
A.Yagi
B.Omni-directional
C.Di-polar
D.Parabolic
E.Mono-polar
Answer: B

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NO.21 If you capture an 802.11 frame, and the ToDS bit is set to zero and the FromDS bit is set to zero, what
type of WLAN is this frame a part of?
A.Mesh
B.Broadcast
C.Infrastructure
D.Hierarchical
E.Ad Hoc
Answer: E

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NO.22 Which of the following is not a category of Intellectual Property?
A.Patents
B.Trademarks
C.Copyrights
D.Manufacturing Standards
E.Trade Secrets
Answer: D

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NO.23 When you install and use PGP on your local computer, where is the key pair stored, by default?
A.secret.ring
B.public.ring
C./usr/bin/pgp
D.pubring.pkr
E.secring.pkr
Answer: DE

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NO.24 When Windows places a file on a FAT 16 partition, what does it look for, in HEX, to know that a file can
be placed in that cluster?
A.0000
B.FFFF
C.0001
D.000F
E.1111
Answer: A

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NO.25 What transmission system uses short bursts combined together as a channel?
A.Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum (FHSS)
B.Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS)
C.Lamar Anthell Transmission (LAT)
D.Digital Band Hopping (DBH)
E.Digital Channel Hopping (DCH)
Answer: A

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NO.26 When an OCSP responder provides a digitally signed response for each of the certificates sent to it by
the relying party in the original request, its reply consists of the certificate identifier, one of three status
values and a validity interval. What are the three status values?
A.Okay, Not Okay, Revoked
B.This Update, Next Update, Future Update
C.Good, Revoked, Unknown
D.Issuer
Public Key, Hash of the Private Key, Unknown
E.Issuer
Private Key, Thumbprint of the Public Key, Unknown
Answer: C

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NO.27 One of the many extensions in an X.509 digital certificate is called the SubjectKeyIdentifier. What is
this extension used for?
A.The extension is used to verify the SubjectPrivateKeyInfo
B.The extension is used to match the hashes of the SubjectKeyAlgorithm
C.The extension is used only when the certificate is used for code signing from a defined Subject
D.The extension is used when matching the hash value of the public key on the certificate
E.The extension is used only if the certificate is sent from a Root CA
Answer: D

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NO.28 Which of the following numbers are Non-Prime Numbers?
A.23
B.2
C.24
D.39
E.17
Answer: CD

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NO.29 Which of the following are hash algorithms?
A.MD5
B.SHA
C.RSA
D.3DES
E.AES
Answer: AB

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NO.30 What type of information can be learned from a user
COOKIES/index.dat file?
A.Their MAC address
B.Their IP address
C.Their email address
D.The websites they have visited
E.The user logon name
Answer: DE

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Nom d'Examen: PMI (PMI Risk Management Professional)
Questions et réponses: 273 Q&As

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NO.1 Tom is the project manager for his organization. In his project he has recently finished the risk
response planning. He tells his manager that he will now need to update the cost and schedule baselines.
Why would the risk response planning cause Tom the need to update the cost and schedule baselines?
A. New or omitted work as part of a risk response can cause changes to the cost and/or schedule
baseline.
B. Risk responses protect the time and investment of the project.
C. Risk responses may take time and money to implement.
D. Baselines should not be updated, but refined through versions.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which risk response is acceptable for both positive and negative risk events?
A. Transferring
B. Acceptance
C. Sharing
D. Enhancing
Answer: B

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NO.3 You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. You want to create a visual diagram, which can depict
the resources that will be used within the project. Which of the following diagrams will you create to
accomplish the task?
A. Roles and responsibility matrix
B. Work breakdown structure
C. Resource breakdown structure
D. RACI chart
Answer: C

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NO.4 John is the project manager of the NHQ Project for his company. His project has 75 stakeholders,
some of which are external to the organization. John needs to make certain that he communicates about
risk in the most appropriate method for the external stakeholders. Which project management plan will be
the best guide for John to communicate to the external stakeholders?
A. Risk Response Plan
B. Risk Management Plan
C. Communications Management Plan
D. Project Management Plan
Answer: C

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NO.5 Your organization has named you the project manager of the JKN Project. This project has a BAC of
$1,500,000 and it is expected to last 18 months. Management has agreed that if the schedule baseline
has a variance of more than five percent then you will need to crash the project. What happens when the
project manager crashes a project?
A. Project risks will increase.
B. The project will take longer to complete, but risks will diminish.
C. Project costs will increase.
D. The amount of hours a resource can be used will diminish.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Shelly is the project manager of the BUF project for her company. In this project Shelly needs to
establish some rules to reduce the influence of risk bias during the qualitative risk analysis process. What
method can Shelly take to best reduce the influence of risk bias?
A. Group stakeholders according to positive and negative stakeholders and then complete the risk
analysis
B. Determine the risk root cause rather than the person identifying the risk events
C. Establish risk boundaries
D. Establish definitions of the level of probability and impact of risk event
Answer: D

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NO.7 Examine the figure given below.
What will be the expected monetary value of Risk C?
A. -$113,750
B. $175,000 if the risk event actually happens
C. -$175,000
D. -$27,000
Answer: D

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NO.8 Frank is the project manager of the NHQ project for his company. Frank is working with the project
team, key stakeholders, and several subject matter experts on risks dealing with the new materials in the
project. Frank wants to utilize a risk analysis method that will help the team to make decisions in the
presence of the current uncertainty surrounding the new materials. Which risk analysis approach can
Frank use to create an approach to make decisions in the presence of uncertainty?
A. Monte Carlo Technique
B. Qualitative risk analysis process
C. Quantitative risk analysis process
D. Delphi Technique
Answer: C

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NO.9 You are preparing to start the qualitative risk analysis process for your project. You will be relying on
some organizational process assets to influence the process. Which one of the following is NOT a
probable reason for relying on organizational process assets as an input for qualitative risk analysis?
A. Studies of similar projects by risk specialists
B. Risk databases that may be available from industry sources
C. Review of vendor contracts to examine risks in past projects
D. Information on prior, similar projects
Answer: C

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NO.10 You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. Your project is using a new material to construct a large
warehouse in your city. This new material is cheaper than traditional building materials, but it takes some
time to learn how to use the material properly. You have communicated to the project stakeholders that
you will be able to save costs by using the new material, but you will need a few extra weeks to complete
training to use the materials. This risk response of learning how to use the new materials can also be
known as what term?
A. Team development
B. Benchmarking
C. Cost of conformance to quality
D. Cost-benefits analysis
Answer: C

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NO.11 John works as a project manager for ABD project. He and his team, are working on the following
activities:
Relative ranking or priority list of project risks
Watchlists of low priority risk
Trends in Qualitative Risk Analysis results
On which of the following processes is John working on?
A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
B. Plan Risk Management
C. Plan Risk Responses
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
Answer: A

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NO.12 You are the project manager of the NHJ project for your company. This project has a budget at
completion of $1,650,000 and you are 60 percent complete. According to the project plan, however, the
project should be 65 percent complete. In this project you have spent $995,000 to reach this point of
completion. There is a risk that this project may be late so you have taken some measures to recover the
project schedule. Management would like to know, based on current performance, what the estimate at
completion for this project will be. What is the estimate at completion?
A. $1,650,000
B. $1,666,667
C. $663,333
D. -$8,333
Answer: B

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NO.13 You work as the project manager for Bluewell Inc. Your project has several risks that will affect several
stakeholder requirements. Which project management plan will define who will be available to share
information on the project risks?
A. Risk Management Plan
B. Stakeholder management strategy
C. Resource Management Plan
D. Communications Management Plan
Answer: D

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NO.14 Tracy is the project manager of the NLT Project for her company. The NLT Project is scheduled to last
14 months and has a budget at completion of $4,555,000. Tracy's organization will receive a bonus of
$80,000 per day that the project is completed early up to $800,000. Tracy realizes that there are several
opportunities within the project to save on time by crashing the project work. Crashing the project is what
type of risk response?
A. Transference
B. Mitigation
C. Exploit
D. Enhance
Answer: D

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NO.15 There are five outputs of the risk monitoring and controlling process. Which one of the following is NOT
an output of the process?
A. Organizational process assetsupdates
B. Risk register updates
C. Vendor contracts
D. Change requests
Answer: C

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NO.16 Lisa is the project manager of the SQL project for her company. She has completed the risk response
planning with her project team and is now ready to update the risk register to reflect the risk response.
Which of the following statements best describes the level of detail Lisa should include with the risk
responses she has created?
A. The level of detail is set by historical information.
B. The level of detail should correspond with the priority ranking.
C. The level of detail must define exactly the risk response for each identified risk.
D. The level of detail is set of project risk governance.
Answer: B

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NO.17 You are the project manager of the GYH project for your organization. Management has asked you to
begin identifying risks and to use an information gathering technique. Which one of the following risk
identification approaches is an information gathering technique?
A. Root cause analysis
B. Assumptions analysis
C. SWOT analysis
D. Documentation reviews
Answer: A

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NO.18 Virginia is the project manager for her organization. She has hired a subject matter expert to interview
the project stakeholders on certain identified risks within the project. The subject matter expert will assess
the risk event with what specific goal in mind?
A. To determine the level of probability and impact for each risk event
B. To determine the bias of the risk event based on each person interviewed
C. To determine the probability and cost of the risk event
D. To determine the validity of each risk event
Answer: A

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NO.19 You are the project manager of the KJH Project and are working with your project team to plan the risk
responses. Consider that your project has a budget of $500,000 and is expected to last six months. Within
the KJH Project you have identified a risk event that has a probability of .70 and has a cost impact of
$350,000. When it comes to creating a risk response for this event what is the risk exposure of the event
that must be considered for the cost of the risk response?
A. The risk exposure of the event is $245,000.
B. The risk exposure of the event is $500,000.
C. The risk exposure of the event is $350,000.
D. The risk exposure of the event is $850,000.
Answer: A

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NO.20 Jenny is the project manager of the NHJ Project for her company. She has identified several positive
risk events within the project and she thinks these events can save the project time and money. You, a
new team member wants to know that how many risk responses are available for a positive risk event.
What will Jenny reply to you?
A. Four
B. Three
C. Seven
D. Acceptance is the only risk response for positive risk events.
Answer: A

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NO.21 You are working with Anna on your project to determine and map the probability distributions of risk
within the project. You have indicated that you will use the uniform distribution method for a portion of the
project. Which part of your project is most likely to have a uniform risk distribution?
A. Late completion stages of a project
B. Project phases that deal with "cutover" technologies
C. Early concept stage of design
D. Project initiating
Answer: C

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NO.22 What risk identification technique allows participants to identify the project risks and to remain
anonymous?
A. Influence diagrams
B. Assumptions analysis
C. Surveys
D. Delphi technique
Answer: D

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NO.23 You are the project manager of the NHQ Project for your company. You have completed qualitative and
quantitative analysis of your identified project risks and you would now like to find an approach to increase
project opportunities and to reduce threats within the project. What project management process would
best help you?
A. Monitor and control project risks
B. Create a risk governance approach
C. Create the project risk register
D. Plan risk responses
Answer: D

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NO.24 You are project manager for ABD project. You, with your team, are working on the following activities:
Probabilistic analysis of a project.
Probability of achieving cost and time objectives.
Trends in Qualitative Risk Analysis results.
On which of the following processes are you working on?
A. Plan Risk Management
B. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
D. Identify Risks
Answer: B

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NO.25 Kelly is the project manager of the BHH project for her organization. She is completing the risk
identification process for this portion of her project. Which one of the following is the only thing that the
risk identification process will create for Kelly?
A. Risk register
B. Risk register updates
C. Change requests
D. Project document updates
Answer: A

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NO.26 Sammy is the project manager for her organization. She would like to rate each risk based on its
probability and affect on time, cost, and scope. Harry, a project team member, has never done this before
and thinks Sammy is wrong to attempt this approach. Harry says that an accumulative risk score should
be created, not three separate risk scores. Who is correct in this scenario?
A. Harry is correct, because the risk probability and impact considers all objectives of the project.
B. Harry iscorrect, the risk probability and impact matrix is the only approach to risk assessment.
C. Sammy is correct, because organizations can create risk scores for each objective of the project.
D. Sammy is correct, because she is the project manager.
Answer: C

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NO.27 You are the project manager of the GHE Project. You have identified the following risks with the
characteristics as shown in the following figure: How much capital should the project set aside for the risk
contingency reserve?
A. $142,000
B. $41,750
C. $23,750
D. $232,000
Answer: C

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NO.28 You are a risk auditor for your company. You are reviewing the contract types a project manager has
used in her project. Of the following, which contract type has the most risk for the project manager as a
buyer?
A. Cost plus percentage of costs
B. Time and material
C. Cost plus incentive fee
D. Fixed-price, incentive fee
Answer: A

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NO.29 Jane is the project manager of the GBB project for her company. In the current project a vendor has
offered the project a ten percent discount based if they will order 100 units for the project. It is possible
that the GBB Project may need the 100 units, but the cost of the units is not a top priority for the project.
Jane documents the offer and tells the vendor that they will keep the offer in mind and continue with the
project as planned. What risk response has been given in this project?
A. Acceptance
B. Enhance
C. Exploiting
D. Sharing
Answer: A

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NO.30 Jenny is the project manager for the NBT projects. She is working with the project team and several
subject matter experts to perform the quantitative risk analysis process. During this process she and the
project team uncover several risks events that were not previously identified. What should Jenny do with
these risk events?
A. The events should be entered into qualitative risk analysis.
B. The events should be determined if they need to be accepted or responded to.
C. The events should be entered into the risk register.
D. The events should continue on with quantitative risk analysis.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: ICDL-Access
Nom d'Examen: ICDL (ICDL-Access Exam)
Questions et réponses: 76 Q&As

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NO.1 Change the entry in the Surname field of this record to Dawson. Move to the next field in this record
when you have finished.
A. Use the back space from the keyboard to delete Lamont -> typeDawson -> press Tab from the
keyboard
Answer: A

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NO.2 Hide the Formatting (Form/Report) toolbar.
A. View -> toolbars -> select formatting (form/Report)
Answer: A

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NO.3 Log on to the database named Car Hire with the username icoffey and password ken*72 .?
A. Select open an existing file -> select c:\windows\desktop\car hire -> ok -> typeicoffey in the name box
-> ken*72 in the password box
Answer: A

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NO.4 Enter the field name Contact Name into the empty row. When you have finished, move the insertion
point to the Data Type column.
A. Type Contact Name -> press Tab from the keyboard
Answer: A

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NO.5 Create a new blank database.
A. Click on the new tool from the database toolbar -> select database -> ok
Answer: A

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NO.6 HOTSPOT
Navigate quickly to the last record in this table.
Answer:

NO.7 Save and close this table.
A. Click on save tool from the table design toolbar -> close the table
Answer: A

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NO.8 Save the above table and give it the name Sals.
A. Click on the save tool from the table design toolbar -> type Sales -> ok
Answer: A

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NO.9 Use Microsoft Access Help to find information about decimal numbers.
A. Help -> Microsoft access help -> type decimal numbers -> search
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which two of these statements about referential integrity are true?
A. If a record in a parent table has a related child record referential integrity prevents you from deleting the
parent record
B. In Access, referential integrity is enforced by typing in a rule.
C. You can set rules about referential integrity in a one table database.
D. Referential integrity ensures that records in linked tables are automatically updated when changes are
made.
E. A child record cannot be entered unless it has a parent in the database if referential integrity is used
Answer: A,E

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