FN0-100 dernières questions d'examen certification Foundry Network et réponses publiés

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Code d'Examen: FN0-100
Nom d'Examen: Foundry Network (Foundry Networks CNE)
Questions et réponses: 82 Q&As

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NO.1 What transport layer protocol provides a connection oriented service?
A. UDP
B. STP
C. TCP
D. ARP
Answer: C

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NO.2 The appletalk echo protocol (AEP) is equivalent to which IP protocol?
A. UDP
B. TCP
C. ARP
D. ICMP
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is the maximum hop count allowed by RIP?
A. 15
B. 10
C. 255
D. no limit
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which Foundry CLI command is used to copy the system image from the secondary
flash area to the primary?
A. copy flash primary
B. copy slot1 primary
C. copy secondary primary
D. copy flash flash primary
Answer: D

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NO.5 Foundry trunking groups on L3 routers load share based on destination IP/IPX
address.
A. T
B. F
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which broadcast and pruning multicast protocol delivers IP multicast data to its
intended receivers? (Select all that apply)
A. PIM
B. ICMP
C. DVMRP
D. IGMP
Answer: A, C

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NO.7 Which of the following are true regarding the highest priority queue on Foundry
chassis devices?
A. qosp0 ?This queue corresponds to 802.1p prioritization levels 0 and 1 and Foundry
priority levels 0 and 1.
B. qosp0 ?This queue corresponds to 802.1p prioritization levels 6 and 7 and Foundry
priority levels 6 and 7.
C. qosp3 ?This queue corresponds to 802.1p prioritization levels 0 and 1 and Foundry
priority levels 0 and 1.
D. qosp3 ?This queue corresponds to 802.1p prioritization levels 6 and 7 and Foundry
priority levels 6 and 7.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which routing protocol is used on the Internet to route traffic between Autonomous
Systems and to maintain loop-free routing?
A. OSPF
B. IBGP
C. BGP4
D. RIP
Answer: C

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NO.9 Foundry route health injection feature supports health checks for which of the
following?
A. All TCP traffic
B. All TCP and UDP traffic
C. HTTP only
D. HTTP, POP3, and SNMP
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following commands will correctly configure a Foundry Layer 3
Switch to learn routes from all neighbors except 192.168.1.170?
A. BigIron(config-rip-router)# neighbor 2 deny 192.168.1.170
B. BigIron(config-rip-router)# neighbor 1024 permit any BigIron(config-rip-router)#
neighbor 2 deny 192.168.1.170
C. BigIron(config-rip-router)# neighbor deny 192.168.1.170 BigIron(config-rip-router)#
neighbor 1024 permit any
D. BigIron(config-rip-router)# neighbor 2 deny 192.168.1.170
BigIron(config-rip-router)# neighbor 1024 permit any
Answer: D

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NO.11 Exhibit:
The diagram shows an OSPF network with no designated router (DR) and no
backup designated router (BDR). Which of the following statements identifiy which
routers will be selected DR and BDR?
A. Router C is DR, Router B is BDR
B. Router B is DR, Router A is BDR
C. Router B is BDR, Router A is DR
D. Router A is DR, Router C is BDR
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which STP bridge parameter manages the interval a bridge will wait for receipt of
a hello packet before initiating a topology change?
A. priority
B. forward delay
C. maximum age
D. hello time
Answer: C

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NO.13 The show configuration command on a Foundry device will show the running
config.
A. T
B. F
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which Foundry CLI command should be used to add an unencrypted community
string?
A. snmp-server community private rw
B. snmp-server community 0 private rw
C. snmp-server community 1 private rw
D. snmp-server community clr private rw
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which Foundry SLB predictor uses a percentage distribution?
A. round robin
B. weighted
C. least connections
D. delay
Answer: B

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NO.16 An OSPF interface configured to be passive will perform which of the following?
A. send and receive OSPF updates
B. receive but not forward OSPF updates
C. will not send or receive OSPF updates
D. will not receive but forward OSPF updates
Answer: C

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NO.17 What does a Foundry ACL ID identify?
A. An ACL as standard or extended
B. Number of entries.
C. A collection of individual ACL entries
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which Foundry CLI command is used to provide privileged user mode?
A. access
B. enable
C. super-user
D. config t
Answer: B

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NO.19 What is the difference between TACACS+ and TACACS?
A. TACACS is an enhancement to TACACS+
B. TACACS is TCP based and TACACS+ is UDP based
C. TACACS+ provides encryption and uses TCP.
Answer: C

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NO.20 What feature allows a switch to detect and switch web traffic to a local cache server
within the network?
A. http header hashing
B. SSL session ID switching
C. transparent cache switching
D. cache route optimization
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: FM0-305
Nom d'Examen: FileMaker (Developer Essentials for FileMaker 11)
Questions et réponses: 115 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two statements are true about field indexing in FileMaker Pro 11? (Choose two.)
A. Calculation fields cannot be indexed.
B. Indexing improves the speed at which sorts are performed.
C. To establish a relationship between two fields, both fields are required to be indexed.
D. A field must be indexed in order for Auto-complete using previously entered values to function.
E. Minimal indexing indicates that either the value index or the word index has been created, but not both.
Answer: DE

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NO.2 Consider a FileMaker Pro 11 database with the following tables and fields:
Assuming only the above relationships between table occurrences, using sorting if necessary, which two
actions can be performed? (Choose two.)
A. create a value list that shows all Invoices for a chosen Customer
B. create a value list on a Product layout which displays all Customers
C. find all of the Customers who have ever ordered a specific Product
D. create a portal to display each Product that has been ordered by a Customer
E. display all records from the Customer table in a portal on a layout for an Invoice Item record
Answer: BE

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NO.3 Consider two FileMaker files, Collection and Item, where tables from Item are included in the
Relationships Graph of Collection.
Which method will preserve all functionality in the Relationships Graph of Collection after renaming the
Item file to Artifact?
A. delete referenced Item table occurrences in the Relationships Graph for Collection and recreate them
for Artifact
B. click the Repair Reference button in the Relationships Graph for Collection and reset the file path
C. choose File > Manage > External Data Sources... for Collection and reset the file path
D. select referenced Item table occurrences in the Relationships Graph for Collection and right-click to
choose Rename File Source...
E. choose the File > Recover... menu in FileMaker Pro 11 Advanced, select the Collection file, then
choose Repair References under Advanced Recover Options
Answer: C

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NO.4 Given the following Relationships Graph for a FileMaker 11 database, where Employee, Manager, and
Trainer are all table occurrences sharing the same source table:
Assuming the relevant fields also exist in these tables, which two sets of data can be shown in portals
without modifying the graph? (Choose two.)
A. a portal of trainers that have taught their own manager
B. a portal of students that have not enrolled in a class
C. a portal showing a non-repeating list of courseware titles taught by a trainer
D. a portal of the classes that have been attended by a trainer's direct reports
E. a portal of classes in which a manager enrolled with one or more of the manager's direct reports
Answer: CD

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NO.5 What is the maximum number of recursive calls that can be made utilizing a custom function in
FileMaker Pro 11 Advanced?
A. 10,000
B. 32,000
C. 50,000
D. 64,000
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is the theoretical maximum record count in a FileMaker Pro 11 file?
A. 100 million records
B. 4 billion records
C. 8 trillion records
D. 64 quadrillion records
E. 128 quadrillion records
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which three are directly selectable options in the Validation tab of the field options dialog in FileMaker
Pro 11? (Choose three.)
A. Existing value
B. Member of value list
C. Strict data type: Integer
D. Strict data type: Time of Day
E. Strict data type: Alphanumeric
F. Minimum number of characters
Answer: ABD

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NO.8 Which three FileMaker Pro 11 objects will display data contents even when unrelated to the current
layout's table occurrence? (Choose three.)
A. Merge variable
B. Indexed Timestamp field
C. A Text field from a shadow table
D. Globally stored Calculation field
E. Globally stored Number field placed in a portal
F. A Container field defined with the Store as reference only option enabled
Answer: ADE

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NO.9 A Text field called FirstLast in FileMaker Pro 11 is set to auto-enter the following formula:
FirstName & LastName.
FirstName and LastName are Text fields in the same table. The option Do not evaluate if all referenced
fields are empty is unchecked. The option Do not replace existing value of field (if any) is checked.
Under which two circumstances will the value of the calculation be inserted into the FirstLast field?
(Choose two.)
A. a record is first created
B. a user selects the menu item Records > Relookup Field Contents
C. each time the value of the FirstName or LastName field is modified
D. any field value on the record is modified and the FirstLast field is empty
E. the FirstName or LastName field is modified and the FirstLast field is empty
Answer: AE

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NO.10 Which two features require indexing in order to work? (Choose two.)
A. List function
B. Dynamic subsummary reports
C. Auto-complete using existing values
D. Dynamic value lists based on FileMaker tables
E. Add Leading Group by <field name> in Table View
Answer: CD

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NO.11 Given the following relationship graph:
Without inspecting the data, what can be assumed about this database?
A. In the Event table, the Event ID has no index.
B. For each Task record there will be exactly one related Volunteer record.
C. Each record in the Task table will represent a unique combination of Volunteer ID and Event ID.
D. The relationship between Task and Event will not allow the Allow creation of records... nor the Delete
related records... settings to be enabled for the Event table.
Answer: A

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NO.12 Given the following relationship graph:
Without inspecting the data, what is known about this database?
A. There are no records in the Event table at this time.
B. The Event table occurrence references a table from an external ODBC data source.
C. There can be zero or one, but no more than one, Event record related to any Task record.
D. The corner arrows indicate all three table occurrences reference tables from external data sources.
E. From a layout based on the Event table occurrence, a portal could be drawn showing both related Task
and Volunteer data.
Answer: E

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NO.13 Which script trigger could provide the functionality to prevent invalid data from being committed while
allowing the ability to revert the record?
A. OnObjectSave
B. OnObjectExit
C. OnObjectModify
D. OnObjectValidate
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which statement is true about supplemental fields added to a table occurrence based on an External
ODBC Data Source that uses MySQL?
A. These fields may be indexed.
B. All non-text data types are converted to text.
C. These fields may only be of type Summary or Calculation.
D. These fields will be added to the table definitions within MySQL.
E. These fields will be lost if the schema of the MySQL table is changed and then the Sync button in the
FileMaker Pro Manage Database dialog is used.
Answer: C

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NO.15 Given a text field Full Name, Auto-Enter by Calculated value has been selected in field options, using
the following formula:
name First & " " & Name Last
The developer then disables (unchecks) the option Do not replace existing value of field (if any).
for which two cases will the results of the specified formula be inserted into the field Full Name? (Choose
two.)
A. when the record is first created
B. when the field Full Name itself is modified
C. only when the field Full Name was previously empty
D. when either of the fields Name First or Name Last are modified
E. when the field Full Name itself is modified and the record is committed
Answer: AD

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NO.16 A new database is created with two tables, Client and Contracts. The only modification made on the
Relationships Graph is to establish a relationship between them which is set to delete related records in
Contracts when a record in Client is deleted.
What happens when the Client table occurrence is deleted from the Relationships Graph?
A. Since it is the only occurrence of the Client table on the graph, it can not be deleted.
B. Any records in the Contracts table that were related to matching Client records are deleted.
C. The formula in the calculation field Name Full (defined as Name First & " " & Name Last) will be broken.
D. Any records in the Contracts table that were related to matching Client records will have values in the
Client ID field deleted.
Answer: C

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NO.17 Given a text field myText that contains "<color>blue</color>", which formula extracts the word "blue"
from the field?
A. Filter (myText ; "color")
B. MiddleWords (myText ; 2)
C. PatternMatch (myText ; "blue")
D. Middle ( myText ; Position ( myText ; "blue" ; 1 ; 1 ) ;4)
Answer: D

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NO.18 A table in a FileMaker Pro 11 database has a field CompanyName of type Text. The following field
validation options are set for this field:
Validate data in this field only during data entry
Allow user to override during data entry
Require not empty
Display custom message if validation fails
A user imports a set of records into this table. Some records have no value in the CompanyName field.
What will occur?
A. All of the records will be imported. No error message will be displayed.
B. The user will see the custom error message, but the import will continue if the user overrides the error.
C. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will also see the specified
custom error message.
D. The user will see the custom error message, but in the case of an import, overriding the error is not
allowed and no records are imported.
E. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will see an error dialog from the
FileMaker Pro application stating that some records could not be imported due to errors, along with a
count of those records.
Answer: A

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NO.19 What is the maximum number of files that can be hosted on FileMaker Server 11 Advanced?
A. 100
B. 125
C. 250
D. 999
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which two statements are true about FileMaker Pro 11 relationships? (Choose two.)
A. A relationship defined with an X (cross product) will only include records with non-matching match field
values.
B. Valid relationships can include unindexed match fields.
C. The % (contains) operator can be used for join criteria that include one unindexed match field.
D. When editing match fields for a relationship, no more than 16 pairs of join criteria can be used.
E. A relationship defined with an X (cross product) match will allow the Delete related records in this table
when a record is deleted in the other table option.
Answer: BE

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Code d'Examen: FM1-306
Nom d'Examen: FileMaker (Developer Essentials for FileMaker 12 Beta Exam)
Questions et réponses: 198 Q&As

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NO.1 Which statement is true about supplemental fields added to a table occurrence based on an
External ODBC Data Source that uses MySQL?
A. These fields may only be of type Summary or Calculation
B. These fields may be indexed unless they are of type Summary.
C. These fields will be added to the table definitions within MySQL when the Sync button in the
FileMaker Pro 12 Manage Database dialog is used.
D. These fields will be lost if the schema of the MySQL table is changed and then the Sync button
in the FileMaker Pro 12 Manage Database dialog is used.
Answer: A

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NO.2 A table in a FileMaker Pro 12 database has a text field CompanyName. The following field
validation options are set for this field:
-Validate data in this field only during data entry
-Allow user to override during data entry
-Require not empty
-Display custom message if validation fails
A user imports a set of records into this table. Some records have no value in the CompanyName
field. What will occur?
A. All of the records will be imported. No error message will be displayed.
B. The user will see the custom error message, but the import will continue if the user overrides
the error.
C. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will see the specified
custom message.
D. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will see an error dialog
from the FileMaker Pro application stating that some records could not be imported due to errors,
along with a count of those records.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which two statements are true about scripts in a hosted FileMaker Pro 12 file? (Choose two.)
A. Two users may not edit the same script simultaneously using the Manage Scripts dialog.
B. Scripts in the hosted file can only be scheduled for server-side execution if Run script with full
access privileges has been enabled.
C. If a script opens and edits a record, and does not commit the record, scripts run by other users
will be unable to edit data in that record until the record is committed.
D. A script can use Get (RecordAccess) before continuing execution to determine whether or not
the current record in the hosted file has been locked by another user.
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 Which statement is true given two FileMaker Pro 12 files, Vendors and Products, if a table
from Products appears on the Vendors Relationships Graph?
A. Scripts in Vendors can reference data from global variables defined in Products.
B. Layouts from Products can be displayed in the same window as layouts from Vendors.
C. Vendors can contain multiple valid external FileMaker Data Sources referencing Products.
D. A table occurrence from Products is required on the Vendors Relationships Graph in order to
call a script in Products from Vendors
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which statement is true regarding resizing layout parts and objects in FileMaker Pro 12?
A. If no Autosizing anchors are set for any object in a layout part, the layout part will expand to fill
the window as it is resized, but all objects will maintain a constant distance from the center of the
layout part.
B. A body part with the top and bottom Autosizing anchors checked in the Inspector will expand or
contract its height in List View as the window is resized instead of changing the number of rows
displayed.
C. If a field in a tab panel has all four of its Autosizing anchors checked in the Inspector, and the
tab control has none, then the field can expand maximally to the edges of the tab panel as the
window is resized.
D. To set the layout part styles to expand or contract horizontally with window resizing, the gray
line defining the right edge of the layout can be selected enabling the Autosizing anchors to be set
in the Inspector.
E. If multiple fields in a portal and the portal itself all have their left and right Autosizing anchors
checked in the Inspector, then the fields will expand proportionally within the portal as the window
is resized horizontally.
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is the minimal requirement to add an external FileMaker Data Source table occurrence
of
Inventory from a file called DEPT to the Relationships Graph of a file called PROD?
A. an active account associated with the [Full Access] privilege set in both PROD and DEPT
B. an active account associated with a privilege set that has the Manage External Data Sources
option checked in both PROD and DEPT
C. an active account associated with any privilege set in PROD, and an active account associated
with a privilege set that has view record access for the Inventory table
D. an active account in DEPT associated with a privilege set that has the Manage External Data
Sources option checked, and an active account with the [Full Access] privilege set in PROD
E. an active account associated with the [Full Access] privilege set in PROD and an active account
in DEPT associated with a privilege set that has view record access for the Inventory table
Answer: E

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NO.7 Which extended privilege is required to connect to a hosted database from a FileMaker Go 12
client?
A. fmphp
B. fmapp
C. fmxml
D. fmios
E. fmiwp
F. fmxdbc
G. fmreauthenticate (n)
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which two statements are true about overriding the default behavior of the Quick Find box
available in the Status Toolbar? (Choose two.)
A. The Perform Quick Find custom menu item must be installed.
B. The Show/Hide Quick Find script step will allow the user to hide the Ouick Find box.
C. The Get (QuickFindText) function will return the text entered into the Quick Find box.
D. The OnModeExit script trigger can be used to override a find request issued from the Ouick
Find box.
Answer: A,C

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NO.9 A file has the following script specified for OnLastWindowClose:
Allow User Abort [Off]
Exit Script [Result; False]
Commit Records/Requests [No dialog]
Assume the Layout Setup dialog for the current layout is set to Save record changes
automatically. When a user attempts to close the file, what will be the result?
A. The file will close and the current record will be committed.
B. The file will close and the current record will not be committed.
C. The file will remain open and the current record will be committed.
D. The file will remain open and the current record will not be committed
Answer: C

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Nom d'Examen: VMware (VMware Certified Professional on VSphere 5)
Questions et réponses: 310 Q&As

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NO.1 What are three true statements about quiescing virtual machine snapshots?
(Choose three.)
A. vSphere snapshot quiescing only occurs on Windows guest OSes.
B. The quiescing operation is automatic with any snapshot.
C. The quiescing operation varies by guest OS.
D. Quiescing should occur before array-based snapshots to ensure consistency.
E. VMware Tools is required for quiescing to be successful.
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.2 ACME Junkmail Incorporated has been utilizing templates in their environment. They are running a
10-node ESXi 5.x Cluster and DRS has not been configured. Several virtual machines have been
deployed from this template and successfully powered on, but a newly deployed virtual machine will not
power on. There appear to be adequate CPU and Memory resources available on the host.
Which three things can be done to allow more virtual machines to be deployed into the cluster from this
template? (Choose three.)
A. Select a different datastore for the virtual machine
B. Move the swap file to a different location
C. Deploy the virtual machine to a different host using the same datastore
D. Enable DRS on the cluster to balance the virtual machine load out across hosts
E. Increase the virtual machine memory reservation
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.3 Which VMware solution uses the security of a vSphere implementation and provides linked-clone
technology to virtual desktops?
A. VMware ACE
B. VMware View
C. VMware Workstation
D. VMware ThinApp
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which two conditions must exist on all hosts in the cluster if Enhanced vMotion Compatibility (EVC) is
used? (Choose two.)
A. The cluster must be enabled for DRS.
B. All hosts in the cluster must be running ESX/ESXi 3.5 Update 2 or later.
C. All hosts in the cluster must have hardware virtualization support enabled.
D. The cluster must be enabled for HA.
Answer: B,C

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
An administrator has deployed a new virtual machine on an ESXi 5.x host. Users are complaining of poor
performance on the application running on the virtual machine. Performance tools display the results
shown in the exhibit.
Which two tasks might improve the user experience? (Choose two.)
A. Add a vCPU to the virtual machine
B. Remove CPU affinity on the advanced CPU setting of the virtual machine
C. Migrate the virtual machine to another ESXi host
D. Remove the limit on the CPU settings of the virtual machine
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 An administrator has created a virtual machine that will be accessed from a public kiosk. Management
has requested that the virtual machine be reset to a known state once a week or on demand if requested.
Which method is the simplest way to meet this requirement?
A. Configure the storage array to be vSphere aware and script routine array snapshot restores of the
datastore.
B. Implement a 3rd party imaging server and PXE boot the virtual machine off a static image.
C. Set the VMDKs of the virtual machine to be Independent-Nonpersistent and schedule restarts of the
virtual machine.
D. Create Nonpersistent disks for the virtual machine and set the guest OS to reboot once a week.
Answer: C

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NO.7 An administrator is working to implement Storage Profiles in their environment.
Which two ways can storage capabilities be generated? (Choose two.)
A. They are generated by Datastore Clusters as LUNs are added to the cluster.
B. They are automatically determined by the Storage Profile when it is created.
C. They can be retrieved from the array through the VMware APIs for Storage Awareness (VASA)
D. They can be manually generated by the administrator.
Answer: C,D

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NO.8 An administrator has deployed vCenter Data Recovery and wants the largest possible de-duplication
store. Which three storage options can be used? (Choose three.)
A. Two CIFS shares
B. Two RDMs on a FCP array
C. One NFS mount on the ESXi host and one RDMs on an iSCSI array
D. One CIFS share and one FCP RDM
E. Two NFS mounts on the ESXi host
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.9 Which two conditions will prevent a virtual machine from being successfully migrated using Storage
vMotion? (Choose two.)
A. The virtual machine has an RDM.
B. The virtual machine has Fault Tolerance enabled.
C. The virtual machine is running on a vSphere 5.x Standard host.
D. The virtual machine has a disk stored on an NFS datastore.
Answer: B,C

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NO.10 An administrator notices that when a virtual machine is placed into a resource pool, a warning indicates
that the virtual machine will receive a very large percentage of the total shares for memory.
Which action can be taken to resolve this problem.?
A. Increase the memory resource allocation to the resource pool.
B. Increase the share value for the resource pool.
C. Change the shares setting from custom to high, medium, or low for the virtual machine.
D. Decrease the memory allocation for the virtual machine.
Answer: C

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NO.11 An administrator has just finished deploying a vApp for a web service.
What three options are available to the administrator for IP allocation within the vApp? (Choose three.)
A. Transient
B. Fixed
C. DHCP
D. Bridged
E. NAT
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.12 An administrator views the Fault Tolerance pane of the Summary tab of a virtual machine and finds that
the current status is Not Protected.
What are two vSphere Fault Tolerance states that would cause the virtual machine to not be protected?
(Choose two.)
A. Stopped -Fault Tolerance has been stopped on the secondary virtual machine.
B. Need Secondary VM -The primary virtual machine is running without a secondary virtual machine and
is not protected
C. Need Primary VM -The secondary virtual machine is running, and a new primary virtual machine
cannot be generated.
D. Disabled -Fault Tolerance is disabled.
Answer: B,D

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NO.13 An administrator is enabling Enhanced vMotion Compatibility (EVC) in a DRS cluster. The
administrator wants only hosts with the newest Intel processors added to the cluster.
Which setting satisfies this requirement?
A. The baseline with the most CPUs listed
B. The baseline with the fewest CPUs listed
C. Any baseline that contains Future Intel processors
D. Create a new baseline and add only the latest processor family
Answer: D

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NO.14 An administrator is editing the IP allocation policy for a vApp.
Which three options are available? (Choose three.)
A. Automatic
B. Roaming
C. Transient
D. DHCP
E. Fixed
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.15 An administrator takes a vSphere snapshot of a virtual machine and applies an OS update. After
confirming the update the administrator cannot enable Fault
Tolerance on the virtual machine and suspects there are snapshots that have not been consolidated.
Which two operations can the administrator perform to verify consolidation is needed? (Choose two.)
A. Expose the Needs Consolidation column in the virtual machines tab of the host.
B. Browse the datastore containing the vmdk files and look for files with the "-delta.vmdk" extension.
C. Expose the Needs Consolidation column in the virtual machine summary tab.
D. Select and run the vSphere Cluster HealthCheck from the right-click menu of the cluster object.
Answer: A,B

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NO.16 Which two conditions prevent the application of a host profile to an ESXi 5.xhost? (Choose two.)
A. The host has multiple profiles attached.
B. The host has not been placed into maintenance mode.
C. The host is running virtual machines.
D. The host is an ESXi host.
Answer: B,C

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NO.17 Under which two conditions can vStorage APIs for Array Integration (VAAI) provide a performance
benefit? (Choose two.)
A. When a virtual disk has VMDK files stored on an NFS datastore.
B. When a virtual disk is created using the New Virtual Machine wizard.
C. When cloning a virtual machine with snapshots.
D. When a virtual disk is deleted.
Answer: A,D

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NO.18 What are three valid objects to place in a vApp? (Choose three.)
A. Folders
B. Hosts
C. Resource pools
D. vApps
E. Virtual machines
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.19 Users are experiencing performance issues when updating their database hosted on a virtual machine.
The administrator determines that disk I/O is high across one of the HBAs on the ESXi host containing the
virtual machine.
What is the action will most likely correct the issue without significantly impacting other users or
datastores?
A. Manually configure the disk multipathing policy to Round Robin for the datastore
B. Migrate the virtual machine to an NFS datastore using Storage vMotion
C. Use Storage vMotion to migrate the virtual machine to a new VMFS5 datastore
D. Map additional LUNs to the ESXi host and extend the datastores
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which three Storage I/O Control conditions might trigger the Non-VI workload detected on the datastore
alarm? (Choose three.)
A. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that does not support Storage I/O Control.
B. The datastore is on an array that is performing system tasks such as replication.
C. The datastore is utilizing active/passive multipathing or NMP (Native Multi-Pathing)
D. The datastore is storing virtual machines with one or more snapshots.
E. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that is not managed by vCenter.
Answer: A,B,E

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Code d'Examen: VCPVCD510
Nom d'Examen: VMware (VMware Certified Professional 5 - IaaS Exam)
Questions et réponses: 171 Q&As

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NO.1 An administrator needs to store a multi-VM vApp in a vCloud so that others can easily deploy.
Where should the administrator store this item?
A. In the Content Management System.
B. In an organization catalog.
C. On the vCD cell s local storage.
D. On the primary data store.
Answer: B

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NO.2 An administrator needs a list of all hosts and statuses across all Provider vDCs in a vCloud Director
environment. Where will the administrator find this information?
A. In the Hosts section of the vSphere Resources pane of the System tab
B. In the Host Status report of vCenter Chargeback
C. In the Hosts section of the vSphere Resources pane of the Administration tab
D. In the Host settings section of each organization
Answer: A

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NO.3 A virtual machine in the QA Organization must communicate with a virtual machine in the Research
Organization. When creating a Static Route, which two pieces of information are required (Choose Two)?
A. The Classless Interdomain Routing (CIDR) address
B. The address of the next hop
C. The subnet address of the target network
D. The address of the target vShield device
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 An administrator is unable to connect to the Internet from within the cloud..The administrator suspects
the firewall setting is causing the issue.
Which troubleshooting step should the user take first?
A. Open Configure Services for the External Network
B. Open Configure Services for the External Routed Organizational network
C. Open Configure Services for the vShield Edge device
D. Open Configure Services for the External Direct Organizational network
Answer: B

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NO.5 An administrator attempts to delete the network named Internet but receives an error.
What is a possible reason for the error?
A. The network named Internet is backed by a port group on a vSphere Standard Switch.
B. The vShield Edge appliance on the external network is powered off.
C. The administrator needs to be an Organization Administrator.
D. The network is still in use by an Organization.
Answer: D

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NO.6 An administrator has scheduled a report to run at 8 PM nightly and has configured a number of
recipients to receive the report. After the report runs, the administrator discovers that a link to the report
was sent to the recipients, not the report itself. Why did this occur?
A. vCenter Chargeback cannot support attachments via email.
B. The report size was larger than the size limit configured for the SMTP server.
C. vCenter Chargevack was configured to send links instead of attachments.
D. The SMTP server was configured not to accept attachments.
Answer: B

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NO.7 A user has been assigned a single external IP address that connects to the Internet. The user has a
vApp containing 4 VMs deployed in the Organization VDC. Which technology will allow a user s VMs to
accept incoming traffic the Internet?
A. Firewall Rules
B. Port Forwarding
C. IP Translation
D. 1:1 NAT
Answer: B

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NO.8 Click the Exhibit button.
ACME has a Web Server virtual machine with an IP Address of 192.168.0.27. It is not responding to
incoming customer requests on either internal or external networks. The network is an External Routed
network with the firewall rules displayed in the exhibit.
Which configuration change would correct this behavior?
A. Enable the Outgoing Web Services rule.
B. Enable the ACME External Internet rule
C. Change the IP Address of the Outgoing Web Services rule to 192.168.0.17
D. Delete the Outgoing Web Services rule
Answer: A

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NO.9 Where must an administrator place sysprep files in order for Guest OS Customizations to work on all
supported versions of Windows?
A. On the VM during vApp creation.
B. On the vCD management cluster.
C. In a specific location on all vCD Cells.
D. In a specific location on the vCenter Servers.
Answer: C

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NO.10 An administrator needs to configure a vShield Edge device that allows for incoming pings.
Which two steps would allow incoming pings? (Choose two.)
A. The rule must have the Log network traffic for firewall rule setting checked.
B. A rule must be created that allows for outgoing traffic and the UDP protocol.
C. The default rule must be set to Disable.
D. A rule must be created that allows for incoming traffic and the ICMP protocol.
Answer: C,D

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NO.11 Due to diminishing capacity, an ESXi host is added to a cluster that supports a cloud environment.
A vCloud Administrator notices that newly created VMs created through vCD are not utilizing the host
resource. What is the reason for this?
A. An inventory synchronization was not performed after the new host was added to the cluster.
B. The host was not manually added to an organizational vDC before it was utilized.
C. The host was not prepared to be part of the vCD environment.
D. DRS was not enabled on the cluster providing resources to the vCD environment.
Answer: C

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NO.12 An administrator receives the error:
Unable to create vShield Edge VM
while using the Reset Network function on vApp or Organizational Networks. What is the cause of this
error?
A. The vApp or Organizational Network name is too long.
B. The vShield Edge VM resource pool is out of resources.
C. The vShield Manager appliance is not registered to vCD.
D. The vShield Manager appliance is not registered to vCenter.
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which core vSphere feature can be used to improve the availability of vShield components?
A. VM Monitoring
B. vCenter Server Heartbeat
C. Fault Tolerance
D. HA Monitoring
Answer: A

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NO.14 An administrator is auditing IP address use in a specific Organizational Network.
Where will the administrator find this information?
A. The administrator can run a Global IP Allocation report
B. The information can be located in the IP Allocation properties for the specific Organizational Network
C. The information can be located in the System Properties of the Organizational Network
D. The administrator can run an IP Allocation report for the specific Organizational Network
Answer: B

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NO.15 Click the Exhibit button.
An administrator needs to configure a vSphere environment to support a vCloud network architecture
providing for automatic provisioning of network pools.
Which step must be taken in order to successfully configure Port Group Isolation?
A. vShield Edge component must be added between the External Network and the virtual switch.
B. VLAN/PVLAN configuration information must be added to the configuration.
C. A vShield Edge component must be added between the Unprotected Network and the virtual switch.
D. The Virtual Standard Switch must be replaced with a vSphere Distributed Switch.
Answer: D

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NO.16 A vCloud Service Provider is attempting to monitor a vCloud implementation. The service is unavailable
from the Organization network. Firewall rules on the vShield Edge device are set correctly. Why would the
service be unavailable?
A. IP Masquerading rules are not set.
B. NAT is not automatically assigned.
C. Static routing is not enabled.
D. DHCP is not scoped properly.
Answer: A

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NO.17 A vApp is deployed within an internal vApp Network. One VM in the vApp is configured to use NAT.
The vApp is converted to a vApp template and deployed to the Organization. After deploying the vApp,
network connectivity does not function as expected.
What explains this behavior?
A. vApps using NAT require the use of Network Pools.
B. The vApp should be connected to an External Direct network.
C. All virtual machines in a vApp must use the same NAT settings.
D. The vApp NAT configuration settings are lost when a vApp is deployed.
Answer: D

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NO.18 An administrator is updating the system SMTP server settings.
Where will the administrator change this setting?
A. The Email Server settings in the Alerts section of the Administration page.
B. The Email section in the System settings section of the Administration page.
C. The Email Server settings in the Servers section of the Administration page.
D. The Email Services configuration file on each vCD Cell.
Answer: B

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NO.19 A virtual machine in the Finance Organization must communicate with a virtual machine in the Sales
Organization. The virtual machine in the Finance Organization has been defined with an external IP
address. A static route has been created on the Finance Organization Network.
For communication to successfully occur between these two virtual machines, how many vShield Edge
devices and how many firewall rules would need to be deployed (Choose Two)?
A. 3 vShield Edge devices
B. 2 vShield Edge devices
C. 3 Firewall rules
D. 2 Firewall rules
Answer: A,B

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NO.20 An administrator needs to allow traffic between two different networks within the same
Organization..Traffic on the internal network cannot be compromised.
Where must static routes be configured to enable this functionality?
A. On the source Internal network to the target External Routed network
B. On the source External Direct network to the target network
C. On the source Internal network to the target External Direct network
D. On the source External Routed network to the target network
Answer: D

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VMware meilleur examen VCP-410-JP, questions et réponses 「VCP-410日本語版」

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Code d'Examen: VCP-410-JP
Nom d'Examen: VMware (VMware Certified Professional on VI4 (VCP-410日本語版))
Questions et réponses: 320 Q&As

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NO.1 管理者は、 SAN から起動する 10 台の ESX 4.x ホストのために、 VMFS および vmkcore パ
ーテゖションを提供する単一の SAN ボリュームを設定しています。
vmkcore パーテゖションが 10 台のホストを サポートするために、このボリューム上に存在
する必要がある最小サ゗ズはどのくらいですか。
A. vmkcore パーテゖシ ョンは、ローカルストレージに格納する必要があります
B. 1GB
C. 2GB
D. 500MB
Answer: B

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NO.2 vCenter Server 4.x を゗ンストールする場合、 ラ゗センスはどこで維持されますか （二つ
選んでください） 。
A. ESXi ホ スト上
B. ラ゗センスサーバ ー内
C. vCenter Server デー タベースで
D. vCenter Server マシ ンのラ゗センスフゔ゗ル内
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 ゕドバンスラ゗ センスで使用できるソケットあたりのコゕの最大数は何ですか。
A. 6
B. 12
C. 16
D. 8
Answer: B

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NO.4 ESXi 4.x のデフォルト? スワップパーテゖションのサ゗ズは、次のどれですか。
A. 544MB
B. 4GB
C. 600MB
D. 1.6GB
Answer: B

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NO.5 ESX 4.x の゗ンストールを実行するときは、 サービス? コンソール? フゔ゗ル? システ ムの
有効な場所は次のどれですか（二つ選んでください）?? 。
A. 共有 VMFS データス トゕに配置された仮想デゖスク内。
B. SAN デゖスク上の ESX ホストのみにマスクされた VMFS データス トゕに配置された仮想デ
ゖスク内。
C. ローカルストレー ジにある ext3 フゔ゗ルシステム内。
D. ローカルストレー ジ上の VMFS データス トゕに配置された仮想デゖ スク内。
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 次のタスクのど れが ESXi ホストのホーム· ページから選択することができますか （三つ
選んでください）??。
A. このホストの゗ンベントリのデータストゕを閲覧します。
B. vSphere 4 のドキュ メントを表示します
C. VMware vCenter Server をダウンロードします
D. VMware Web Access Client をダウンロード します。
E. このホストの゗ンベントリ内の仮想マシンを閲覧します。
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.7 次のストレージ· リソースのどれが ESX 4.x の゗ンストール時のみに作成されています
か（二つ選んでください） 。
A. vmkcore
B. swap
C. VMFS datastore
D. scratch
Answer: A,B

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NO.8 次の機能のうち どれが vSphere Advanced Edition の一部ではな いのですか。
A. VMware High Availability
B. VMware Fault Tolerance
C. VMware DRS
D. VMware vShield Zones
Answer: C

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NO.9 管理者は物理サ ーバーに ESX 4.x を゗ンストールしています。
正常な゗ンストールをサポートするために、 次のコンポーネントのどれが変更されるま たは
交換される必要があるでしょうか。
A. 2 AMD Opteron CPUs
B. SATA disk controller
C. 1GB RAM
D. 4 Intel PRO 1000 Network Adapters
Answer: C

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NO.10 管理者は、 サー ビスコンソールのメモリ要件を増加させる ESX 4.x ホスト上でサポート
される追加コンポーネントを゗ンストールする予定です。
この゗ンストールを実行することについて次のどれが本当ですか（二つ選んでください） 。
A.ESX ホストのメモリには、 CLI を使用して調整する必要があり、 再起動の必要がありません。
B.vmkcore パーテゖションは、追加のメモリー要件をサポートするために増加する必要があ
るでしょう。
C. ホストのメモリは、vSphere Client または CLI を使用して調整する必要があるでしょう。そ
して、ESX ホストは再起動する必要があります。
D. スワップパーテゖションが追加のメモリー要件をサポートするために増加する必要があ
るでしょう。
Answer: C,D

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Nom d'Examen: Veritas (Data Protection Implementation for Windows using NetBackup 5.0)
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NO.1 Which three conditions must be met for Synthetic backups? (Choose three.)
A.The policy type must be configured as "Standard" or "Ms_windows-NT"
B.The policy must have "Collect true image restore information" and "with move
detection" selected
C.The master server, media server and clients involved must be running NetBackup version
3.4 or higher
D.The schedule created for the synthetic backup must have the "Synthetic Backup" option
selected
Answer: A, B, D

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NO.2 In preparation for a master server upgrade, you want to launch a backup of the
NetBackup catalog. Which two methods accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. in the GUI, right-click your configured catalog backup policy, and select "Manual
Backup"
B. in the GUI, right-click on "Catalog" and select "Backup NetBackup Catalog "
C. from the command line, run "bpbackup" with appropriate switches
D. from the command line, run "bpbackupdb" with appropriate switches
Answer: B, D

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NO.3 You have an MSSQL database that you need to add to your environment.
Which three items do you need to know before backups can be configured? (Choose
three.)
A. the version of MSSQL being used
B. the kind of authentication being used
C. the directories in which the database files are located
D. he backup retentions needed by the DBA
Answer: A, B, D

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NO.4 Which directory path on the client can the client's patch level be determined?
A. <Install_path>\ Volmgr\Bin\Patch
B. <Install_path>\Patch
C. <Install_path>\ Volmgr\Bin\Version
D. <Install_path>\ Version
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which two statements are true about installing multiple media servers? (Choose
two.)
A. A server license key must be installed on each media server
B. All media server installations must be pushed from the master server
C. All media server installations should be performed as root/administrator
D. All media server installations can be pushed from a media server with the same OS
Answer: A, C

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NO.6 An administrator planning a new NetBackup installation has 10,000 tapes in a single
library and 27 tape pools.
Which NetBackup feature allows automatic assignment of free tapes to any of the 27
pools when the pool runs out of tapes?
A. enabling a scratch pool
B. setting up bar code rules for each pool
C. turning on Media Multiplexing for each pool
D. enabling auto-assign media in the Universal Attributes tab
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which three methods can be used to ensure that your NetBackup catalog has been
backed up? (Choose three.)
A. in the GUI, right-click on "Catalog" and select "Configure NetBackup Catalog
Backup"
B. individually run "bprecover -1" against your catalog images (tape or disk)
C. in the GUI, right-click on "Catalog" and select "Verify NetBackup Catalog
Recoverability"
D. in the GUI, check the "Activity Monitor" for catalog backup results
Answer: A, B, D

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NO.8 What is required for Shared Storage Option installation?
A. Fibre Channel connections for all tape devices to be shared
B. a robot SCSI connection to all participating NetBackup media servers
C. 1-gigabit Ethernet communication between all participating NetBackup servers
D. A SSO license key on the NetBackup master server and on all participating
NetBackup media servers
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which two methods determine the patch level of a client? (Choose two.)
A. Run the support script in the goodies directory on the master server
B. Select Help > About from the backup, Archive, and Restore interface on the client
C. Select Help > About from the NetBackup Administration Console on the media server
D. Select Help > About from the NetBackup Administration Console on the master
server
Answer: A, B

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NO.10 You are currently assigned to conduct a NetBackup assessment for a Storage Area
Network environment. The system administrator wants to know how to verify that
the Fibre Channel switches are supported by VERITAS.
Which two tasks can be done to determine if VERITAS supports the switches?
(Choose two.)
A. review the SNIA Certification List
B. review the Compatibility Matrix Guide
C. review the Media Manager Device Configuration Guide
D. ask the system administrator which types of switches they are using
Answer: A, B

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NO.11 A disk-based storage unit must be created for use in a small number of backup
policies.
Which action is taken to ensure that this storage unit is used only by the intended
policies?
A. enable the "On demand only" option for the disk storage unit and target this specific
storage unit in each of the intended backup policies.
B. configure the disk storage unit as the destination storage unit in each of the intended
backup policies
C. add only the intended policies to the "Authorized Policies" tab of the storage unit
D. add the disk storage unit to a unique "Storage Unit Group" and target this specific
storage unit group in each of the intended backup policies
Answer: A

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NO.12 The master server host properties option "Free Browse" in the "General" tab will
allow ________.
A. accounts without local Administrator privileges on the master server to view
NetBackup configuration settings
B. any NetBackup client to view NetBackup configuration settings
C. designated NetBackup clients to view images from scheduled backups
D. the NetBackup master server to browse remote file systems when creating a file list
for a policy
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which two commands allow management of storage units through the command
line?(Choose two.)
A. bpstuadd
B. bpstulist
C. bpsturemove
D. bpstudelete
Answer: A, B

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NO.14 Which two steps are required during the initial installation of a NetBackup master
server? (Choose two.)
A. create volume pools
B. define storage units
C. setup policy schedules
D. enter the server license
E. specify the NetBackup server type
Answer: D, E

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NO.15 Your company has a single master/media server. You have just updated the
NetBackup master server with the latest patch. Now all the hot Oracle database
backups fail.
What should you do?
A. patch Oracle Agents on all Oracle clients
B. reboot the master server after installing the patch
C. install the latest Oracle Agents patch on the master server
D. reboot the Oracle clients after installing the patch on the master server
Answer: B

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NO.16 A moderately used database server must be configured as a NetBack up client. The
database application is custom built and is not covered by a NetBackup database
agent. Backups must be performed quickly and open files need to be backed up. In
addition, the ability to restore individual files from backup is required.
Which of the following backup methods would best fit this scenario?
A. Copy-on-write snapshot
B. Mirror snapshot
C. Flash backup
D. True Image Restore enabled backup
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which NetBackup command do you use to help verify NetBackup client
configuration and network connectivity?
A. Bpclntcmd -ip
B. Bpclntcmd -hn
C. Bpclntcmd -pn
D. Bpclntcmd -listall
Answer: C

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NO.18 The VERITAS device drivers have been installed on a Microsoft Windows server.
What must be done before configuring any devices?
A. run vmquery
B. run bpconfig
C. reboot the computer
D. restart NetBackup services
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which two statements are true about a media server upgrade installation from
version 4.5 to version 5.0? (Choose two.)
A. All clients must be on 50 if their media server is on 50
B. All master and media servers must be on NetBackup 5.0
C. The media servers must be on 4.5 or 50 if the clients are on 4.5
D. The master server can be upgraded to 5.0, and media servers can remain at4.5
Answer: C, D

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NO.20 You need to add a number of Windows servers from another department to your
NetBackup Windows 2003 master server. The system administrator for these
systems has given you a Domain Administrator account and permission to install
the client, but he will not be available to help you He has not given you access to the
computer room where the systems are physically located.
What is the supported method for installing the client?
A. A share the installation CD on the network, log into the systems through a "Remote
Terminal" session, map the CD and run setup.exe
B. from the Administration client on the master server, select all the remote clients in
"Host Properties", right-click and select "Client Install"
C. log in to any system on the domain as the domain administrator, run Launch.exe on
the install CD and installation to network clients
D.remote installation is not allowed;the system administrator will have to give you
physical access to the new clients
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: TB0-122
Nom d'Examen: Tibco (TIBCO BusinessEvents 5 Exam)
Questions et réponses: 112 Q&As

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NO.1 Which three TIBCO BusinessEvents objects can be stored in cache servers? (Choose three.)
A. Scorecards
B. Global Variables
C. Rule Functions
D. Concepts
E. Events
F. Rules
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.2 In Cache Object Management settings, what does the property cache Agent Quo rum specify?
A. The number of members in the cluster that hold the backup data
B. The size of the limited cache
C. The minimum number of storage-enabled nodes that must be active in the cluster at startup
D. The maximum size of the object table cache
Answer: C

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NO.3 When does an RTC cycle end.?
A. When an external action causes changes to the RETE network
B. When TIBCO BusinessEvents builds (or refreshes) a rule action agenda
C. When a rule action is executed
D. When the rule action agenda is empty
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which two statements are true about a new installation of TIBCO BusinessEvents? (Choose two.)
A. An existing Eclipse installation can be used.
B. An existing Eclipse installation cannot be used.
C. TIBCO BusinessEvents can be installed for use with TIBCO Business Studio business modeling
software.
D. TIBCO BusinessEvents cannot be installed for use with TIBCO Business Studio business modeling
software.
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 Which object management type should be used when cacheLoadconceptById () has been defined
explicitly to load objects?
A. In-memory
B. Cache only
C. Cache + Memory
D. Berkeley DB
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which file must be configured with system-level settings before the TIBCO BusinessEvents engine
starts?
A. TRA
B. CDD
C. Site Topology
D. be-engine.xml
Answer: A

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NO.7 What are three features of Pattern Matcher? (Choose three.)
A. The Pattern service can be started and stopped anytime inside the engine,
B. The Pattern service can only be run inside an Inference agent.
C. The Pattern service starts automatically when the engine starts.
D. The Pattern service can run in Inference agent or Query agent.
E. Each agent has a separate instance of the Pattern service.
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.8 Which three statements about a CDD are true? (Choose three.)
A. A CDD can be associated with only one Object Management type at any given time.
B. Deployment requires both a CDD and the project.
C. Deployment requires both CDD and EAR files.
D. A project can have a one-to-many relationship with a CDD.
E. A CDD needs to be rebuilt when a new rule is added to the project.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.9 Concept A contains Concept B. Concept A is using Cache Only mode of object management.
Which object management mode is recommended for Concept B to use?
A. Memory Only
B. Memory Only or Cache + Memory or Cache Only
C. Memory Only or Cache Only
D. Cache + Memory or Cache Only
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which two channels represent configurable physical connections to a resource? (Choose two.)
A. JMS
B. FTP
C. HTTP
D. Local
Answer: B,D

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NO.11 Which TIBCO BusinessEvents add-on software enables queries using a language that is SQL-like?
A. Decision Manager
B. Event Stream Processing
C. Views
D. Data Modeling
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which two JMS message types are supported by TextMessageSerializer? (Choose two.)
A. MapMessage
B. BytesMessage
C. StreamMessage
D. TextMessage
Answer: A,D

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NO.13 How do you override the default event for a JMS destination?
A. Map incoming messages directly to an event in TIBCO BusinessEvents
B. Map incoming messages only through the_ns_field in the message
C. Map incoming messages only through the_nm_fieldinthemessage
D. Map incoming messages through two fields (_ns_,_nm_) in the message
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which statement is true about rules?
A. To assert a new set of concept instances it must be returned as arrays of objects from a rule
B. Executing a rule action may prevent the execution of other rules matching the criteria.
C. Returning an event instance from a rule sends the event to its default destination.
D. All rules matching the conditions at the given time will be triggered in parallel.
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which two functions does the studio-tools.exe utility provide? (Choose two)
A. Imports version 2.x projects
B. Imports version 3.x projects
C. Analyzes decision tables
D. Validates decision tables
E. Exports decision tables to Microsoft Excel
F. Imports decision tables from Microsoft Excel
Answer: A,E

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